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SBA (Single Best Answer)

FCPS Part-I, Sample Question

FCPS Part-I,   Sample Question

(Physiology + Anatomy)

1. During pregnancy the uterus increases considerably in size. After delivery the regression of uterine size is brought about by which of the following cellular organelles?

a) Endoplasmic reticulum

b) Golgi apparatus

c) Mitochondria

d) Lysosomes

e) Nucleus


2.You have donated a unit of blood. Which one of the following anticoagulants will the blood bank technician prefer for storage of your donated blood?

a) Citrate

b) coumarin

c) Enoxaparin

d) Heparin

e) Oxalate


3. Dendritic cells are immune cells. Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?

a) Heart

b) Kidney

c) Muscle

d) Skin

e) Stomach


4. A patient admitted for elective cholecystectomy  noted to have prolonged prothrombin time. The most likely cause is:

a) Antiphospholipid antibody

b) Haemophilia

c) Heparin therapy

d) Liver disease

e) Von Willebrand factor deficiency


5. Aldosterone and cortisol are steroid hormones. Steroid hormones act via:

a)  Altering ion channels

b) Formation of cAMP

c) Formation of DAC + IP3

d) Gene transcription

e) Tyrosine kinase activity


6. Ventricular filling occurs due to delay in which part of the cardiac conducting system?

a) SA node

b) AV node

c) Purkinjee system

d) Bundle branches

e) Artial muscle


7. Which of the following peptides can increase blood pressure acutely and cause hypokalaemia chronically?

a) Angiotensin II

b) Atrial natriuretic factor

c) Desmopressin

d) Endorphin

e) Oxytocin

8. The electrocardiogram (ECG) of a 35-year-old man shows small or low-voltage QRS complexes. The patient most likely has:

a) Atrial fibrillation

b) Myocardial infarction

c) Pericardial effusion

d) Thyrotoxicosis

e) Ventricular tachycardia


9. The electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient on surgical ward shows flattened (notched) T-waves. The patient is most likely to have:

a) Hypokalaemia

b) Hyperkalaemia

c) Hypocalcaemia

d) Myocardial infarction

e) Thyrotoxicosis


10. Under resting conditions a marathon runner compared to untrained people will have a higher:

a) Cardiac output

b) Cardiac stroke volume

c) Heart rate

d) Oxygen consumpation

e) Respiratory rate


11. Electrocardiogram of a patient with chest pain showed inverted T-waves. The T-wave of the normal electrocardiogram is caused by:

a) Atrial repolarisation

b) Atrial depolarization

c) Bundle of His depolarization

d) Ventricular depolarization

e) Ventricular repolarisation


12. A 65-year-old man following prostatectomy complained of incontinence. He is most likely to have:

a) Functional incontinence

b) Mixed incontinence

c) Overflow incontinence

d) Stress incontinence

e) Urge incontinence


13. A defect in which part of the renal tubule will affect absorption of amino acids and glucose the most:

a) Collecting duct

b) Collecting tubule

c) Distal convoluted tubule

d) Loop of Henle

e) Proximal convoluted tubule


14. Interference with active reabsorption of sodium by the kidney is most likely to cause

a) A rise in blood pressure

b) A rise in plasma potassium ion level

c) A rise in interstitial fluid volume

d) A rise in plasma specific gravity

e) A rise in the volume of urine passed in a given time


15. In the stomach, chief cells release pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is activated by:

a) Acid PH and pepsin

b) Cholecystokinin

c) Chymotrypsin

d) Gastrin and pepsin

e) Trypsin and acid PH


16. Which of the following is most likely to happen if the ileum of a patient is completely resected?

a) Deficiency of fat content of the stool

b) Extracellular fluid volume deficiency

c) Increased iron absorption

d) Increased calcium absorption

e) Vitamin B12 deficiency


17. Vitamin B12 the most chemically complex of all the vitamins. Vitamin B12absorption depends on:

a) Ca2+

b) Fe3+

c) HCI

d) Intrinsic factor

e) Transferrin


18. Gastric blood flow is influenced by both neural and humoral factors. Which of the following factors reduces gastric blood flow?

a) Acetylcholine

b) Gastrin

c) Histamine

d) Vagal stimulation

e) Vasopressin


19. Parkinsonism is a known disorder of motor function. The primary area involved in this disease is:

a) Basal ganglia

b) Motor cortex

c) Neostriatum

d) Red nucleus

e) Substantia nigra


20. A lesion of the lateral geniculate nucleus  of the thalamus will affect:

a) hearing

b) Smell

c) Taste

d) Touch

e) Vision


21. A lesion of the posterior column-medial lemniscus system is most likely to affect:

a) Fine touch

b) hearing

c) Pain sensation

d) Temperature sensation

e) visual acuity


22. Which of the following substances is most likely to be associated with production of pain after an injury?

a) Acetylcholine

b) Adrenaline

c) Bradykinin

d) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

e) Substance P


23. A lesion of the reticular activating system will affect:

a) co-ordination of endocrine activity

b) Level of wakefulness

c) regulation of micturition

d) Regulation of gastrointestinal motility

e) Release of endocrine secretions


24. Which of the following conditions is associated with a decrease in skeletal muscle tone?

a) Activation of y-fibres

b) Anxiety

c) Lower motor neurone lesions

d) Parkinson’s disease

e) Upper motor neurone lesions


25. A 42-year-old woman has addison’s disease. In addison’s disease one would expect:

a) High blood levels of cortisol

b) Hypertension

c) Hypoglycaemia between meals

d) Hypopigmentation

e) Increased metabolic rate


26.The intertubercular groove of the humerus contains the:

a) Tendon of the pectoralis minor muscle

b) Tendon of the long head of the triceps brachii muscle

c) Tendon of the coracobrachialis muscle

d) Tendon of the short head of the biceps branchii muscle

e) Tendon of the long head of the biceps branchii muscle


27. What tyte of synovial joint is the elbow?

a) Ellipsoid

b) Hinge

c) Ball and socket

d) Plane

e) Bicondylar


28. A 78-year-old women had a fall and fractured a carpal bone in the distal row. Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

a) Lunate

b) Pisiform

c) Scaphoid

d) Triquetral

e) Trapezium


29. The medial and lateral femoral circumflex arteries are usually direct branches of the:

a) Obturator artery

b) Popliteal artery

c) Profunda femoris artery

d) External iliac artery

e) First perforating artery


30. While removing a mass from the back. The thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8) is accidentally injured. Which muscle is most likely to be affected?

a) Serratus posterior inferior

b) Serratus anterior

c) Levator scapulas

d) Longissimus

e) Latissimus dorsi


31. A victim of anterior chest stabbing received a stab in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. The structure most likely to be injured is the:

a) Nipple

b) Root of the lung

c) Sternal angle

d) Sternoclavicular joint

e) Xiphoid process


32. A 34-year-old woman with history of cough and weight loss for over a month is noticed to have a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch on her chest X-ray. The opacity is most likely to be present in the:

a) Costodiaphragmatic recess

b) Costomediastinal recess

c) Cupola

d) Hilum

e) Pulmonay ligament


33. During a demonstration on anatomy of the lung the tutor asked one of the medical students to pass his index finger posteriorly inferior to the root of the left lung and identify the structure that is blocking the passage of the finger. Which structure would most likely be responsible for this?

a) Costodiaphragmatic recess

b) Cupola

c) Inferior vena cava

d) Left pulmonary vein

e) Pulmonary ligament


34. A patient with a malignant mesothelioma is to undergo pleuropneumonectomy, which involves removal of the entire pleura and lung on the affected side. Which of the following layers provides a natural cleavage plane for surgical separation of the costal pleura from the thoracic wall?

a) Deep fascia

b) Endothoracic fascia

c) Parietal pleura

d) Visceral pleura

e) Transversus thoracis muscle fascia


35. A 40-year-old patient with sarcoldosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which of the following nerves would be most vulnerable to irritation in this patient?

a) Right phrenic

b) Left phrenic

c) Right recurrent laryngeal

d) Left recurrent laryngeal

e) Right vagus


Answers1.  D

2.       A

3.       D

4.       D

5.       D

6.       B

7.       A

8.       C

9.       A

10.     B

11.     A

12.     D

13.     E

14.     E

15.     A

16.     E

17.     D

18.     E

19.     E

20.     E

21.     A

22.     E

23.     B

24.     E

25.     C

26.     E

27.     B

28.     E

29.     C

30.     E

31.     D

32.     B

33.     E

34.     B

35.     D

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